Punishment for future disobedience?

This is part of a series of issues where the Qur'an seemingly has time compressions its account of historical events.

In Sura 4:155-161 (in Pickthall's translation) we find this account:

[155]
Then because of their breaking of their covenant,
and their disbelieving in the revelations of Allah,
and their slaying of the prophets wrongfully,
and their saying: Our hearts are hardened -
Nay, but Allah set a seal upon them for their disbelief,
so that they believe not save a few

[156]
And because of their disbelief
and of their speaking against Mary a tremendous calumny;

[157]
And because of their saying: We slew the Messiah, Jesus son of Mary, Allah's messenger

[160]
Because of the wrongdoing of the Jews We forbade them good things which were (before) made lawful unto them,
and because of their much hindering from Allah's way,

[161]
And of their taking usury when they were forbidden it,
and of their devouring people's wealth by false pretences, We have prepared for those of them who disbelieve a painful doom.

Yusuf Ali translates 4:160 as "For the iniquity of the Jews We made unlawful for them certain (foods) good and wholesome which had been lawful for them; ..." and by this clarifying that the things forbidden pertain to dietary laws, i.e. they are certain kind of foods. This is in accordance with this yet another aya in the Qur'an, Sura 6:146, stating:

And to those who were Jews We made unlawful all of those who have claws, and of oxen and sheep We made unlawful to them the fat of both, except such as was on their backs or the entrails or what was mixed with bones: this was a punishment We gave them on account of their rebellion, and We are surely Truthful.

There are many errors in the above Qur'anic statements.

Fact 1: The nation of Israel only came into being at the time of Moses and this is the only time Israel received any law. It is also anachronistic to speak of "the Jews" for this time. It was the children of Israel. The name "Jews" only came into use nearly a thousand years after that. When the ten tribes from the northern kingdom had been deported from Israel by the Assyrians and only the tribe of Judah and some remnants from other tribes were left behind, the tribe of Judah came to represent all of them. But to speak of the Israelites as "the Jews" is something that only became reality after the return from the exile to Babylon by the tribe of Judah.

Fact 2: The later prophets speak out against Israel's disobedience many times, but never does God add any further laws to those given through Moses in the Torah. All the dietary laws, the laws against usury and all other laws are in the Torah. No later additions are made at any time. Moses lived about 1,400 B.C.

Fact 3: The Jewish scriptures do report the slaying of various prophets but all of these are in the time after David, i.e. at least 500 years after Moses and the time the Torah was given.

Fact 4: The last part of the Jewish scriptures was written about 400 B.C. There was no prophet to the Jews between that time and the time of John the Baptist and Jesus. John the Baptist and Jesus lived and preached about A.D. 25-30. But they are not recognized as prophets by the Jews. It remains that the last recognized Jewish prophet dates about 400 B.C.

Sura 4:156-157 in particular state that the Jews received harsher laws because they rejected Jesus and insulted Mary, his mother. Seemingly, the dietary laws are in view. But these laws and all other laws were given 1,400 years before the birth of Jesus. How could these acts of disobedience be the reason for the dietary laws in the Torah?

This is a clear error of timing in the Qur'an. As this and the other historical compressions show, the Qur'an has little comprehension of historical sequence and exibits several such blunders.

Are millions of Jews punished by Allah because some of their descendents many generations into the future will reject Jesus? Are the Israelites of Moses' and Joshua's day punished with harsh dietary laws because some "Jews" in the time after king David commit the sin of usury?


The above are factual problems. That is the part that is contradictory to both Bible as well as history. In the next section we need to ask then what could be the background and motivation for such faulty accusations?

It seems that the section against the Jews from 156-161 is caused by the fact of Muhammad's disappointment and anger against the Jews in Medina who rejected him as a messenger from God, who also asked for interest for the money they had lent to Muhammad, and whose open resistence to his message did hinder what Muhammad believed to be "the way of Allah" (4:160).

[160]
Because of the wrongdoing of the Jews
We forbade them good things which were (before) made lawful unto them,
and because of their much hindering from Allah's way,

[161]
And of their taking usury when they were forbidden it,
and of their devouring people's wealth by false pretences,
We have prepared for those of them who disbelieve a painful doom.

[162]
But those of them who are firm in knowledge
and the believers believe in that which is revealed unto thee,
and that which was revealed before thee,
especially the diligent in prayer and those who pay the poor-due,
the believers in Allah and the Last Day.
Upon these We shall bestow immense reward.

Muhammad seems to define as believers those who believe in his mission. Those Jews who see him as a false prophet he denies to even be "believers" anymore.

Other issues can be raised in regard to these verses.

  • Sura 4:157 and the Crucifixion.
  • The dietary law "We made unlawful all of those who have claws." (Sura 6:146)


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